fce_hb_samp_p3.pdf

PAPER

USE OF

ENGLISH

GENERAL DESCRIPTION

STRUCTURE AND TASKS

Paper format

The paper contains five parts.

PART 1

Timing

1 hour 15 minutes.

Task type

Multiple-choice cloze.

No. of parts

and focus

Emphasis on vocabulary.

No. of questions 65.

Format

A modified cloze test containing 15 gaps and

followed by 15 four-option multiple-choice items.

Task types

Multiple-choice cloze,

open cloze, key word

transformations, error

correction, word formation.

No. of Qs

15.

PART 2

Answer format Candidates may write on the

question paper, but must

transfer their answers to the

separate answer sheet within

the time limit.

Candidates indicate their

answers by shading the correct

lozenges or writing the

required word or words in a

box on the answer sheet.

Task type

Open cloze.

and focus

Grammar and vocabulary.

Format

A modified cloze test containing 15 gaps.

No. of Qs

15.

PART 3

Task type

Key word transformations.

and focus

Grammar and vocabulary.

Format

10 separate items, each with a lead-in sentence

and a gapped second sentence to be completed in

2 to 5 words, one of which is a given ‘key word’.

Marks

Parts 1, 2, 4 and 5 – each

correct answer receives 1

mark.

Part 3 – each answer receives

up to 2 marks.

No. of Qs

10.

PART 4

Task type

Error correction.

and focus

Emphasis on grammar.

Format

A text containing errors. Some lines are correct

but most contain an extra incorrect word which

must be identified.

No. of Qs

15.

PART 5

Task type

Word formation.

and focus

Vocabulary.

Format

A text containing 10 gaps. Each gap corresponds

to a word. The stems of the missing words are

given beside the text and must be changed to

form the missing word.

No. of Qs

10.

fce examination | paper 3: use of english

The five parts of the

Use of English paper

PART 3 – KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS

The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.

PART 1 – MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE

Sample questions and answer key: pages 33 and 35.

In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.

Each answer in Part 3 receives up to 2 marks.

Sample task and answer key: pages 32 and 35.

Part 3 consists of ten key word transformations (plus an

example). Each question contains three parts: a lead-in

sentence, a key word, and a second sentence of which only the

beginning and end are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in

the second sentence so that the completed sentence is similar

in meaning to the lead-in sentence. The answer must be

between two and five words, one of which must be the key

word. The key word must not be changed in any way.

Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.

Part 1 consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus one

gap as an example). Each gap represents a missing word or

phrase. The text is followed by 15 sets of four words or phrases

(A, B, C, D), each set corresponding to a gap. Candidates have

to choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set

fills the gap correctly.

In this part of the paper a wide range of structures such as

reported speech, passive voice, conditionals, verb tenses and

modals is tested. In addition, phrasal verbs and lexical phrases

such as ‘to look forward to –ing’ may also be tested.

Different types of words are tested in this part. Sometimes it is

necessary to choose between words with a similar meaning,

e.g. choosing ‘ leaking ’ rather than ‘ spilling ’, ‘ pouring ’, ‘ flowing ’ to

fill the gap in ‘ The roof of our tent was ….. ’ . At other times it will

be necessary not simply to know the meaning but also to

know which word is correct because of the preposition, adverb

or verb form which follows, e.g. choosing ‘ interested ’ rather

than ‘ keen ’, ‘ enthusiastic ’, ‘ eager ’ to fill the gap in ‘ You may be …..

in applying for this job ’. This part of the paper also tests

collocations, such as ‘ to pay attention to ’, and linking phrases

such as ‘ even if ’. Phrasal verbs are also tested here. They may

be tested in three different ways; the whole of the phrasal

verb, e.g. ‘ keep on ’, just the verb itself, e.g. ‘ keep ’, or just the

preposition or adverb which follows the verb, e.g. ‘ on ’.

Each answer in Part 3 is worth 2 marks. The mark scheme

splits the answer into two parts and candidates gain one mark

for each part which is correct.

PART 4 – ERROR CORRECTION

The focus of this part is grammar.

Sample task and answer key: pages 34 and 35.

Each correct answer in Part 4 receives 1 mark.

PART 2 – OPEN CLOZE

Part 4 consists of a text which resembles something that a

student at this level might have written. The text consists of

seventeen lines, most of which contain an error of the sort

typically made by learners at FCE level, e.g. incorrect verb

forms, wrong pronouns, prepositions and articles.

The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.

Sample task and answer key: pages 33 and 35.

Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.

Candidates must write on their answer sheet the word which

is wrong. However, a certain number of lines do not contain an

error and in these cases candidates must put a tick (

) on

their answer sheet. The absence or misuse of capital letters is

ignored, although spelling must be correct.

Part 2 also consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus

one gap as an example). However, in this part, as there are no

sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates

have to think of a word which will fill the gap correctly. The

answer will always be a single word, never a phrase. In some

cases, there may be more than one possible answer and this is

allowed for in the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of

capital letters and punctuation is ignored, although spelling,

as in all parts of the test, must be correct.

The first two lines of the text are examples: one of the lines

will be correct; the other will contain an error. There are

fifteen lines which are tested.

fce examination | paper 3: use of english

PART 5 – WORD FORMATION

Encourage your students to plan their time carefully and

not spend too long on any one part of the test. They should try

to make sure that they have a few minutes at the end of the

test to check through their answers. They can do the various

parts of the test in any order, but it is probably better to do

them in the order of the question paper so as to avoid the

possibility of putting answers in the wrong sections of the

answer sheet.

In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.

Sample task and answer key: page 35.

Each correct answer in Part 5 receives 1 mark.

Part 5 consists of a text in which there are ten gaps plus one

gapped line as an example. There is one gap per line. At the

end of each line, and separated from the text, there is a word

in capital letters. Candidates have to produce a new word

based on this word which can be correctly inserted in the gap

in the line.

By part

PART 1

Give your students practice in recognising the differences

in meaning between similar words, e.g. ‘cut’ and ‘tear’ . They

should try to learn whole phrases as well as individual words

in context, and they should be aware that knowing the

grammatical patterns and collocations of words is as

important as knowing their meaning.

Preparation

Remind your students to make sure the answer they choose

fits into the sentence. They should not choose their answer

simply after reading the words which come before the gap;

they need to read the words which follow as well. It is

sometimes the case that a preposition or adverb which follows

a gap determines which of the options is correct.

General

There is a title to all of the texts in the paper. This is meant

to give candidates an early idea of what to expect from the

text. Encourage your students to read through the whole of the

text so that they have a clear idea of what it is about, before

they begin to answer any of the questions. Once they have

done this, they should begin answering the questions.

Get your students used to reading all the options for any

question before deciding which one fills the gap correctly, and

remind them that they should never choose more than one

option as the answer.

Each part of the test has an example towards the beginning

(two examples in the case of Part 4). Students should get used

to reading these to help them understand what they have to

do. Remind them that in the examination they must not write

the answer to the example on their answer sheet.

Make your students aware that it is important that the line

they make in the lozenge on the answer sheet for each answer

is firm and clear and done in pencil.

Sometimes candidates may think that more than one

answer is possible to certain questions. Advise them not to

give more than one answer as this may result in their losing

marks. If they do give two or more answers and all are

acceptable, they will, of course, be awarded the mark.

However, if they give more than one answer and one of them

is wrong, they will lose the mark.

PART 2

As in Part 1, candidates need to read the words which

follow the gap as well as those which come before it. Tell your

students that they should make sure that if they are filling the

gap with a verb it agrees with its subject.

Remind your students to keep in mind a sense of the whole

text.

Sometimes candidates may decide that the answer they

have written is wrong and wish to change it. If this happens in

Part 1, they will need to rub out the mark they have made in

the lozenge. In Parts 2, 3, 4 and 5, they should clearly cross or

rub out the word or words. They should not try altering the

word itself as this will make it unclear. They should not put

the word in brackets as it will appear to be an alternative.

Make your students aware that they must use only one

word to fill each of the gaps. They should not fill any of the

gaps with a contraction (e.g. didn’t, he’ll ), when these count as

two words, and they should never use abbreviations (e.g. ‘ sthg ’

for ‘ something ’).

PART 3

Give your students practice in completing the answer sheet.

When transferring answers to the answer sheet, they must be

careful to make sure that they put the answer by the

appropriate question number.

In preparing for this part of the paper, give your students

practice in paraphrase. This might include rewriting sentences

from texts, saying things again ‘in other words’, as well as

working on lexical synonyms and grammatical

transformations. In the examination, they must make sure

that the answer makes the second sentence mean the same as

the lead-in sentence.

Make your students aware that correct spelling is essential

in all parts of the paper.

Remind your students that handwriting should be clear so

that it can be read easily by the markers.

fce examination | paper 3: use of english

Remind your students that the answer must consist of two,

three, four or five words. If candidates write more than five

words they will not be awarded the marks.

Sometimes the missing word will need to be in the plural,

and sometimes it will need to be in a negative form. The sense

of the text around the gap will help candidates decide if it is

necessary to put the word in the plural or to make it negative.

Remind your students that they must use the key word in

their answer and they must not change it in any way. If they

do not use it or if they alter it, they will not be awarded the

marks.

Make your students aware that answers will not always

need only prefixes or suffixes to be added to a word;

sometimes they will need to make internal changes (e.g. ‘ long ’

to ‘ length ’).

Make sure your students pay careful attention to any verb

in the final part of the second sentence as it will often indicate

whether to use a singular or plural noun in the key.

Remind your students that the base word at the end of each

line applies only to that line. They must not try to form a word

from that base word in any other line. In every case the base

word at the end of the line will have to be changed.

Remind your students that when writing their answers,

they should not write the whole or parts of the second

sentence; they should write only the words that are needed to

fill the gap.

When they are counting the words, students should

remember that, as in Part 2, they must count contracted words

(with the exception of ‘can’t’ = ‘cannot’ ) as the full form (e.g.

‘ didn’t ’ = 2 words ‘ did not ’).

PART 4

Students can practise for this part by reading through their

own work and that of their peers, trying to identify errors.

Students should practise reading the text slowly and

carefully as it is very easy to overlook the addition or omission

of small words, such as ‘a’ or ‘of’ .

) in the box on their answer sheet. They

must not leave the box blank as it will be assumed that they

have simply not attempted this item.

A sentence may be spread over several lines. Encourage

your students to read the whole sentence before deciding that

a word is wrong. Sometimes it will not be apparent that a

word early in a sentence is wrong until the whole of the

sentence has been read.

Remind your students that they must be sure that a word

they choose as being an error is actually wrong and not simply

a word which is not vital to the meaning of the sentence but

which is nevertheless appropriate. There will never be two

wrong words in one line.

Remind your students that the correct lines can appear in

any line of the text, including the first and last tested lines.

PART 5

Students should be made aware of the range of words

which can be formed from the same base word, e.g. ‘ compete ’,

‘ competition ’, ‘ competitor ’, ‘ competitive ’, ‘ competitively ’, and the

negative forms of these words, e.g. ‘ uncompetitive ’. In the

examination when they see the ‘base word’ at the end of a

line, they must not automatically write a related word which

they know well as their answer. They need to read the

surrounding sentence to decide what the missing word is.

fce examination | paper 3: use of english

Remind your students that they must indicate a correct line

by putting a tick (

Part 1

made

took

did

had

For questions

1-15

, read the text below and decide which answer (

) best fits each space.

rather

quite

well

just

There is an example at the beginning (

Mark your answers

on the separate answer sheet

watching out

looking out

looking after

watching over

Example:

far

distant

remote

distinct

across

out

away

past

grew

felt

experienced

found

reaching

increasing

expanding

completing

TWO CREATURES OF THE PAST – MAMMOTHS AND MASTODONS

held

put

set

kept

The elephant has some

(0)

..... relatives called mammoths, which lived in the Stone Age. More than

usual

frequent

regular

familiar

15,000 years ago people painted pictures of them on cave walls. Then, astonishingly, in 1799, a man

walking along the banks of the River Lena in Siberia

(1)

….. a startling discovery. Peering into a wall of

when

while

even

ice, he could

(2)

..... see the shape of a massive, hairy mammoth, apparently

(3)

..... at him. He

10 A

preferred

enjoyed

desired

selected

immediately ran

(4)

..... in terror, but several days later he

(5)

..... the courage to return and cut the

mammoth’s tusks – its two enormous teeth – out of the ice to sell them. Mammoth tusks are the

11 A

turned

went

became

came

biggest teeth of any known creature, some

(6)

..... a length of five metres. These tusks were

(7)

..... to

12 A

quantities

amounts

totals

numbers

good use, protecting the mammoths’ young from other animals, and brushing away snow.

13 A

addition

combination

attachment

connection

To most of us, mammoths are probably the most

(8)

..... of the elephant’s extinct relatives, but

14 A

transformations

adjustments

diversions

changes

thousands of years earlier, in the woodlands of eastern North America, lived another of the elephant’s

relatives called the mastodon. Like mammoths, mastodons may also have had a hairy coat, but

(9)

.....

15 A

led

caused

guided

influenced

mammoths mainly ate grass on the plains, mastodons

(10)

..... to eat twigs and leaves.

We do not know why mastodons

(11)

..... extinct. However, computer studies of the decrease in

mammoth

(12)

..... suggest that it was a particular

(13)

..... of over-hunting by humans, and

(14)

..... in

the climate at that time which

(15)

..... to their disappearance.

0102/3 S03

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