Volare questions - Performance.pdf

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Domande
Professione Volare
Domande Performances
Data:
Nome Allievo:
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Professione Volare
Domande Performances
109) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :
102) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the
following statements is correct?
A
VR and VMCG
A
Screen height cannot be reduced.
B
V2 and VMCA
B
The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass
penalties.
C
VR and VMCA
C
When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to
maintain the same margins on the runway length.
D
V2 and VMCG
D
In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway
performance information can still be used.
99) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine
turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal
to:
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all
other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
103) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
higher gross mass
A
an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does
not change.
A
1547 m.
B
1720 m.
B
requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
C
1779 m.
C
an increase in airspeed and power is required.
D
1978 m.
D
a higher coefficient of drag is required.
100) The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum
control speed" by:
104) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
A
at completion of gear retraction.
A
15%
B
B
at completion of flap retraction.
20%
C
at reaching V2.
C
30%
D
at 35 ft above the runway.
D
10%
101) (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance
Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for
(1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.
105) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a
low flap setting for the take-off?
A
High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low
ambient temperature and short runway.
Given :
O.A.T : ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
B
Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short
runway and a low ambient temperature.
C
High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path,
long runway and a high ambient temperature.
D
Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path,
long runway and a high ambient temperature.
A
73 and 84 KIAS
B
106) Balanced V1 is selected
68 and 78 KIAS
C
65 and 75 KIAS
A
for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give
the highest mass.
D
71 and 82 KIAS
B
if it is equal to V2.
C
if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out
take-off distance.
D
for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give
the highest mass.
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Professione Volare
Domande Performances
165) (For this question use annex 032-4744A)
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS)
for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the
correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean"
configuration?
111) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight
conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
within an area of
A
75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise
speed.
A
d
B
60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine
out cruise speed.
B
a
C
b
C
60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
D
c
D
30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
108) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of
increased altitude on specific range?
112) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the
following statements is correct?
A
Does not change.
A
Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off
performance.
B
Increases only if there is no wind.
B
A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off,
even if the performance data for contaminated runway is
available.
C
Increases.
D
Decreases.
C
The performance data for take-off must be determined in
general by means of calculation, only a few values are
verified by flight tests.
96) The speed for best rate of climb is called
D
The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off
mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for
decreasing friction.
A
VO.
B
VY.
113) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for
level flight
C
VX.
A
D
V2.
the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
B
the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
110) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are
descending at idle thrust. Which of the following
statements correctly describes their descent
characteristics ?
C
the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed
command.
D
the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
A
At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward
speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
114) Which statement regarding the relationship between
traffic load and range is correct?
B
There is no difference between the descent characteristics
of the two aeroplanes.
A
The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the
maximum zero fuel mass.
C
At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always
glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
B
The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel
quantity.
D
At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always
glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
C
The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
D
The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity
of fuel.
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Professione Volare
Domande Performances
115) The induced drag of an aeroplane
87) The danger associated with low speed and/or high
speed buffet
A
is independent of the airspeed.
A
limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
B
increases with increasing airspeed.
B
can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
C
decreases with increasing airspeed.
C
exists only above MMO.
D
decreases with increasing gross weight.
D
has to be considered at take-off and landing.
116) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off
mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
76) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in
the performance diagram is correct?
A
50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining
the climb limited take-off mass.
A
Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
B
On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the
aeroplane will always be climb limited.
B
Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
C
Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
C
The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing
OAT.
D
Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum
range speed
D
The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed
for best rate of climb.
77) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to
290/.74 the new crossover altitude is
117) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of
T/O flaps 10°?
A
unchanged.
A
V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are
set.
B
only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
B
V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a
function of runway length only.
C
lower.
D
higher.
C
V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
D
V2 has the same value in both cases.
78) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used
when:
118) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified
rating?
A
it is dark.
B
the runway is wet.
A
Go-Around Thrust
C
obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
B
Maximum Take-off Thrust
D
the runway is contaminated.
C
Maximum Cruise Thrust
D
Maximum Continuous Thrust
79) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset
Boundary Chart?
107) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway
down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-
slope...
A
The value of the Mach number at which low speed and
shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes.
B
The values of the Mach number at which low speed and
Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
A
increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance
required (ASDR).
C
The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at
various masses and power settings.
B
reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance
required (ASDR).
D
The value of the critical Mach number at various masses
and altitudes.
C
increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required
(TODR).
D
reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
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Professione Volare
Domande Performances
80) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range
for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
98) Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
A
equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
A
the field limited take-off mass.
B
equal to that maximum endurance.
B
the obstacle limited take-off mass.
C
equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag.
C
the take-off run.
D
lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
D
the climb limited take-off mass.
81) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
86) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA)
equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:
(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
A
take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
A
T + D = - W sin GAMMA
B
lift off speed.
B
T + W sin GAMMA = D
C
take-off decision speed.
C
T - W sin GAMMA = D
D
critical engine failure speed.
D
T - D = W sin GAMMA
82) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other
things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
97) (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve,
in the following conditions:
Given :
O.A.T.: ISA -15°C
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
A
a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance
B
a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb
performance
C
an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance
A
908 NM
D
an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb
performance
B
902 NM
C
875 NM
83) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross
weight and altitude is highest at
D
860 NM
A
VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
88) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4
000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general
conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.
B
VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
C
VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
D
VA (design manoeuvring speed)
A
less than 4 000 m.
B
unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
84) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch
propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum
drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.
C
only a new performance analysis will determine if the service
ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.
D
The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:
higher than 4 000 m.
A
inferior to 95 kts
B
is between 95 and 125 kt
C
equal to 125 kt
D
equal to 95 kt
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